SOCIAL SCIENCE-10TH STD CBSE 21-22 SQP

SAMPLE QUESTION PAPER 2021-22 TERM I

CLASS X

SOCIAL SCIENCE – CODE 087

TIME-90 MINUTES                                                                                                                     MM-40M

 

General Instructions:

  1. The Question Paper contains four
  2. Section A has 24 questions. Attempt any 20
  3. Section B has 22 questions. Attempt any 18
  4. Section C has 12 questions (Case based). Attempt any 10
  5. Section D contains 2 Map based questions. Attempt both the questions.
  6. All questions carry equal
  7. There is no negative

 

SECTION – A

(Attempt any 20 out of 24 questions)

1. Who among the following was the founder of ‘Young Europe’ underground secret society in Berne?

A.     Giuseppe Garibaldi

B.     Giuseppe Mazzini

C.     Count Cavour

D.     Otto von Bismark

2. Which of the following was the result of the Act of Union, 1707?

A.     Unification of Germany

B.     Unification of the kingdom of Great Britain

C.     Unification of Italy

D.     Unification of Vietnam

3. Identify the correct statement with regard to the ‘Zollverein’ from the following options:

A.     It was a coalition of Prussian states formed to manage political alliances.

B.     Its aim was to bind the Prussia politically into an association.

C.     It was a Custom Union at the initiative of Prussia.

D.     It helped to awaken and raise national sentiment in Europe.

4. Which of the following countries were involved in the Three Wars with Prussia and ended with victory and unification of Germany?

A.     Austria, Poland and France

B.     Austria, Denmark and France

C.     Austria, Turkey and France

D.     Austria, England and France

5. Identify the ideology under which people demanded freedom of markets in early- nineteenth-century Europe.

A.     Romanticism

B.     Liberalism

C.     Socialism

D.     Rationalism

6. Choose the correctly matched pair about the crops and the areas they are grown in:

A.     Groundnut- Assam

B.     Tea- Gujarat

C.     Coffee- Karnataka

D.     Sugarcane – Chhattisgarh

7. The piece of land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years is called

                  .

Choose the correct option:

A.     Barren land

B.     Forest land

C.     Grazing land

D.     Fallow land

8. Which one of the following conferences was convened to discuss environmental protection and socio-economic development at the global level in 1992?

A.     Kyoto Protocol

B.     Montreal Protocol

C.     Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit

D.     World Summit on Sustainable Development

9. India has land under a variety of relief features. Which of the following features ensure perennial flow of some rivers, provide facilities for tourism and ecological aspects?

 

A.     Plains

B.     Plateaus

C.     Islands

D.     Mountains

10. Which one of the following human activities has contributed significantly in land degradation?

A.     Deforestation

B.     Crop rotation

C.     Shelter belts

D.     Ploughing

 

11. Which one of the following countries adopted majoritarianism in their Constitution?

A.     Nepal

B.     India

C.     Sri Lanka

D.     Bangladesh

12. Identify the significant reason of power sharing from the following options.

A.     Reduces socio-economic conflicts

B.     Provides ethnic -cultural development

C.     Allows people to enjoy specific rights

D.     Restricts supremacy of one party

13. Apart from the Central and the State Government, Belgium has a third kind of government as well. Identify this third kind of government from the following options:

A.  Democratic Government

B.   Socialist Government

C.   Community Government

D.  Liberal Government

14. Which of the following countries is an example of ‘Coming Together Federation’?

A.     India

B.     Sri Lanka

C.     USA

D.     Belgium

15. Why is the power shared amongst different organs of government called as horizontal distribution of power? Identify the correct reason.

A.        It gives judiciary more power than legislature and executive.

B.         It allows different organs of government to be placed at the same level.

C.         It gives representation to different ideologies at political level.

D.        It influences and coordinates in the decision-making process.

16. In India’s federal system, the Central and the State governments have the power to legislate on all those subjects which are included in the:

A.     Union list

B.     State list

C.     Concurrent list

D.     Residuary subjects

17. Which of the following states of India enjoy special powers under Article 371A of the Constitution of India?

A.     Nagaland

B.     Rajasthan

C.     Himachal Pradesh

D.     Tamil Nadu

 

18. Which one the following is an example of Primary Sector activity?

A.     Baking

B.     Outsourcing

C.     Farming

D.     Banking

19. Which of the following measures the proportion of literate population in the seven and above age group?

A.     Net Attendance Ratio

B.     Enrolment Rate

C.     Literacy Rate

D.     Drop out Ratio

20. Which one of the following is the correct meaning of ‘Average Income’?

A.     The total income of the country divided by its earning population.

B.     The total income of the country divided by its total population.

C.     The total income of all the residents of the country.

D.     The total income from the domestic and foreign sources.

21. Which one of the following best describes Human Development Index (HDI)?

A.     Improvement in science, information and technology

B.     Improvement in health, education and income

C.     Improvement in information and communication

D.     Improvement in investment, finance and technology

22. “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries.” Which of the following is the essence of this statement?

A.     Economic development

B.     Human Development

C.     Sustainable Development

D.     National Development

23. Which of the following examples fall under an organized sector?

A.      A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.

B.      An engineer getting all employment benefits.

C.      A cleaning staff in a private school

D.      A tailor stitching clothes at his home.

24. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 states a guarantee of minimum 100 days of employment per year. If government is unable to fulfil these 100 days of an employment, the government would have to———————————–

Choose the correct option:

A.     Pay the compensation in lieu of these days

B.     Provide another scheme for the same

C.     Pay at least 1/3 percent allowance

D.     Provide health care as compensation

 

SECTION – B

(Attempt any 18 out of 22 questions)

25. Following image is the personification of Germany commonly associated with the Romantic Era and the Revolutions of 1848. Identify its name from among the following options.

Options:

A.     Marianna

B.     Philip Viet

C.     Germania

D.     La Italia

NOTE: Following question is for Visually impaired candidates in lieu of Q25.

Identify the name of the Prussian King who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.

A.     William I

B.     William II

C.     Henry VII

D.     Louis IV

26. Which of the following option(s) is/are correct about Balkan nationalism?

I.            The Balkan region became part of the conflict because of the Ottoman Empire.

II.             The region comprised of ethnic groups included Greeks, Serbs, Montenegro, etc.

III.                   British and ethnic nationalities struggled to establish their identity. Options:

A.     I & II

B.     II & III

C.     Only II

D.     Only 1

 

27. Why did the weavers in Silesia revolt against contractors in 1845? Identify the appropriate reason from the following options.

A.     Contractors did not pay their dues

B.     Contractors appointed few on high posts

C.     Contactors used government policies

D.     Contractors gave them loans on high interests

28. Identify the major aspect that helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain.

A.     In 1688, the monarch of Britain fought war with English Parliament.

B.     The Parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy.

C.     The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Ireland and Wales.

D.     The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of many revolts.

29. Identify the soil with the help of clues given below –

·          develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall

·          is low in humus content

·          found in the hilly areas of Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu

A.     Forest soil

B.     Yellow soil

C.     Black soil

D.     Laterite soil

30. Which of the following categories of resources can we put Tidal energy in?

A.     Renewable resources

B.     Non-renewable resources

C.     Actual resources

D.     Potential resources

31. Consider the following statements on power sharing and select the answer using the codes given below:

I.                          It is good for democracy.

II.                            It creates harmony in different groups

III.                             It brings transparency in the governance.

IV.                            It brings socio-political competition among parties. Options:

A.     I, II & III

B.     II, III & IV

C.     I, III & IV

D.     I, II & IV

32. How does Judiciary act as an umpire in a federal nation?

A.     Judiciary rules over Centre and State

B.     Centre and Judiciary work collectively

C.     Courts can change structure of Constitution

D.     Courts use the power to interpret the Constitution

 

33. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala as the only official language of the state.

Reason (R): The government of Sri Lanka wanted to foster their culture, language and religion.

Options:

A.     Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B.     Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C.     A is true but R is false.

D.     A is false but R is true

34. Match the following items given in Column A with those in Column B.

Column A                                   Column B

I.                          Information Technology      1. Concurrent List

II.                            Police                                    2. Union List

III.                             Education                              3. State List

IV.                            Defence                                 4. Residuary Subjects Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

A.  I-4, II-3, III-1, IV-2

B.  I-3, II-4, III-1, IV-2

C.  I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2

D.  I-4, II-2, III-1, IV-3

35. Anita is appearing in an examination conducted for recruitment to Central Government positions. In how many languages as mentioned in the 8th Schedule can she opt to take the exam? Select the appropriate option.

A.     18

B.     21

C.     22

D.     25

36. Identify the administrative system of Indian Government with the help of the following information.

 

·         Power shared between Central and State Governments to Local Governments.

·         It is called as a third tier of the Government.

·         The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.

 

Select the appropriate option from the following.

A.     Federal system

B.     Unitary Federal system

C.     Decentralised system

D.     Unitary system

37. Which of the following options prove that India is a quasi-federal state?

I.                          More powers with Centre

II.                            Residuary subjects with Centre

III.                             Equal subjects with Centre and States

IV.                            Currency and Railways with Centre Options:

A.     I, III & IV

B.     I, II & IV

C.     II, III & IV

D.     II, III & IV

38. Identify the correct statement/s about the theory of Federalism in the Indian Constitution.

I.                          The Constitution declared India as a Union of States.

II.                            Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments is basic to the structure of the Constitution.

III.                             It is easy to make changes to this power sharing arrangement.

IV.                            The Parliament can on its own change this arrangement. Options:

A.  I &II

B.   II & III

C.   I & III

D.    II & IV

39. Two statements are given in the question below as Assertion (A) and Reasoning (R). Read the statements and choose the appropriate option.

Assertion (A): Human Development mentions how much socio-economic development has happened in a country.

Reason (R): Comparison of national income of two countries explains Human Development Index.

Options:

A.     Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

B.     Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.

C.     A is true but R is false.

D.     A is false but R is true.

40. Choose the correct option from the following:

 

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SOCIAL SCIENCE-10TH STD CBSE 21-22 SQP

 

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